Quantumcat, on Aug 3 2007, 10:54 AM, said:
Why is it a takeout of clubs when the 2♣ bidder has just said he has diamonds by passing the 2♦?
A double on the original 2
♣ could be t/o on clubs based on the theory that a hand that wants to dbl any other suit for t/o could wait an still be able to double at the 2-level. I would rather play a dbl of 2
♣ as t/o of spades, though. If the capp-overcaller has a red suit, it's still safe to double in next round, but if he has spades it's nice to show your hand immediately before p gets forced to bid at the 3-level. If he has clubs (which he's less likely to have because he might not want to play at the 3-level and if he does he can just overcall 3
♣), doubling in next round is more attractive than doubling spades because it's easier for p to leave in a dbl at the 3-level.
Anyway, I would assume a double of 2
♣ to be either "stolen bid" (Stayman) or showing clubs. Here in the Netherlands I think the default agreement among intermediate players is that it shows clubs (since nobody plays capp here you would have to assume the default agreement).
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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