a bidding question 5-5 in minors
#1
Posted 2009-January-16, 08:33
#2
Posted 2009-January-16, 08:38
#3
Posted 2009-January-16, 08:40
You might want to treat
♠A4
♥A
♦65432
♣AKQJT
as a 5-4 hand, though, and open 1♣ planning to rebid 2♦.
#4
Posted 2009-January-16, 08:45
-P.J. Painter.
#5
Posted 2009-January-16, 08:57
1♦-1M
2♣-2♦
3♣-
and now partner nows which partscore is better if he won't accept your game try.
If you have enough to force to game there is a case for reversing:
1♣-M
2♦-Ingbergman
3♦
may be more descriptive than
1♦-1M
3♣
which by many players could be a one-suited hand with diamonds, or 6-4, or 5-4.
On the other hand, suppose it goes
1♣-(4♠)-p-(p)
?
You would now want to show your two-suited hand with 4NT since 5♦ bypasses 5♣. But 4NT ought to show six clubs and a 4-card in a red suit. OTOH
1♦-(4♠)-p-(p)
5♣
shows your hand since with 6-4 you would have bid 4NT.
In conclusion: keep it simple, always bid the higher ranking suit first with 5-5. You avoid reverses which are quite difficult to handle, and you can describe your shape if opps preempt.
#6
Posted 2009-January-16, 09:03
peppygal, on Jan 16 2009, 09:33 AM, said:
The simple "book" answer is to always start by bidding ♦'s.
Unless you and your partner have explicitly discussed making exceptions to this for specific circumstances, and how to deal with the consequences of making such exceptions, I strongly suggest always making the "book" bid.
#7
Posted 2009-January-16, 09:10
kenrexford, on Jan 16 2009, 09:45 AM, said:
Nice
#8
Posted 2009-January-16, 09:24
kfay, on Jan 16 2009, 10:10 AM, said:
kenrexford, on Jan 16 2009, 09:45 AM, said:
Nice
Actually, more than a bit rude. Especially when responding to someone who may very well be a B/I given the question.
I've seen posts edited and people's warning level raised for less.
#9
Posted 2009-January-16, 12:38
How my partner and I solve this problem is 2C is forcing for one round.
Sure, you don't get to stop on a dime in 2C, but responder can then rebid his major, support diamonds, or raise clubs when appropriate.
This also means we won't open our minors on complete garbage as well.
#10
Posted 2009-January-16, 12:47
Helene, why do you say partner would take "false preference" over a reverse. If we promise 5♣4♦, it is normal preference to want to play clubs with 2♣3♦.
George Carlin
#11
Posted 2009-January-16, 12:50
gwnn, on Jan 16 2009, 01:47 PM, said:
Yes because it's not 4 and 5, it's 4 and 5+.
#12
Posted 2009-January-16, 12:55
It's a common beginner/intermediate mistake when learning about reverses to open a lower suit with a good hand "in order to reverse." The problem is that this shows more length in the first suit than the second, and you will never convince partner of your real distribution. The right choice here is to open 1♦ and rebid clubs; either 2♣ (if around 11-17 hcp) or 3♣ (if a little bit better).
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#13
Posted 2009-January-16, 13:05
awm, on Jan 16 2009, 01:55 PM, said:
Ditto. It's hard to say without seeing the exact hand, but between 17 and 18 is probably the most accurate cutoff for whether to jump shift with a 5-5 hand. There are 17s that are probably worth a jump shift (Ax x AKTxx KQJTx) and 18s that probably aren't (Jx K AKQJx KJxxx) but it's a reasonable guidline.
#14
Posted 2009-January-16, 13:22
Winner - BBO Challenge bracket #6 - February, 2017.
#15
Posted 2009-January-16, 13:57
Phil, on Jan 16 2009, 02:22 PM, said:
+1
I may have some insight as to why this disease is running around. I've had a few players tell me that Some Local Expert (pick a random one) "did <foo> while I was kibitzing." as justification for =them= trying the same stuff.
I often have to remind such players that SLE
a= is probably not playing anything close to Standard,
b= often has specialized agreements and systemic methods for the situation they saw,
c= has much better bridge skills to use as a safety net, and
d= they may very well be "taking a flyer", "operating", or simply doing something =wrong=. ("Expert" does not mean "infallible").
#16
Posted 2009-January-16, 14:13
Whenever I have both minors, I imagine the auction returning to me at the worst possible level, like maybe 4♠. 1min-1♠-pass-4♠-?
If I start with 1♣, I have a hard time showing diamonds. If I start with 1♦, I have an easy time showing clubs.
Sure, 4NT is available. However, whereas 1♦...5♣ sounds like 5-5, 1♦...4NT sounds like 6-4. If 1♣...4NT sounds like 6-4, then I have a mild problem with 5♦+6♣. So, I might understand opening 1♦ with 5♦/6♣ for this reason.
With 5-5 in the minors, however, life is great if I open 1♦.
-P.J. Painter.
#17
Posted 2009-January-17, 10:42
foo, on Jan 16 2009, 02:57 PM, said:
Phil, on Jan 16 2009, 02:22 PM, said:
+1
I may have some insight as to why this disease is running around. I've had a few players tell me that Some Local Expert (pick a random one) "did <foo> while I was kibitzing." as justification for =them= trying the same stuff.
I've had the same experience and have played with a 6,000 MP player that opens 1♣ on a hand like this every few months.
It simply doesn't work and when I have 3♦ and 2♣ we always play in ♣. ALWAYS.
As Ken points out, you are handing the opponents an opportunity to bury your auction if they start bidding and raising a major. If your pard is weak, even 1♣ - 1♠ - P - 2♠ is a headache but if you start with 1♦ it's not.
What is baby oil made of?
#18
Posted 2009-January-17, 10:52
Phil, on Jan 16 2009, 08:22 PM, said:
I think it is part of some outdated bidding systems. I have seen in course notes for 1-o-1 and "Looier", and I think even (but I may be wrong) a very old book of Culbertson. Thinking about it, I think Henderson's Acol book also teaches this.

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