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1N?

#1 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-April-18, 21:11

We'd all bid a Forcing 1N over 1 with: xxxx, void, xxx, KQ9xxx right?

What if the spades were better? Say, Kxxx. What about five little - (and 2?).

Thanks.
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#2 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2010-April-18, 21:39

Phil, on Apr 18 2010, 10:11 PM, said:

We'd all bid a Forcing 1N over 1 with: xxxx, void, xxx, KQ9xxx right?

no
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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2010-April-18, 21:42

Opener with 4 5 3 1 will rebid 2D after a forcing NT. My choice would be 1S. At least if he still rebids 2D he will have 4 of them. Second choice would be pass.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#4 User is offline   spotlight7 

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Posted 2010-April-18, 22:05

Hi:

Kaplan Inversion.

1S* and partner will rebid 1NT* to find our 4-4 spade fit

or bid something else to move us forward.

Regards,
Robert
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#5 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2010-April-25, 08:18

With this hand I pass quickly.
With your alternatives : an extra small spade - pass again; a King of spades then 1S. I prefer Kaplan inversion, but natural if not.
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#6 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-April-26, 06:24

Phil you will never be a shubi but keep trying.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#7 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2010-April-26, 06:27

What's the problem with 1?

If you want to sign off in 2 over a 2 rebid, I can understand. That's the only reason for ever bidding 1NT with a 4-card spades I could think of.
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#8 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-April-26, 07:45

Phil, on Apr 19 2010, 04:11 AM, said:

We'd all bid a Forcing 1N over 1 with: xxxx, void, xxx, KQ9xxx right?

What if the spades were better? Say, Kxxx. What about five little - (and 2?).

Thanks.

We never have a unanimous poll, so why would everyone do the same here? :D

I'd just bid 1 or pass btw.
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#9 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2010-April-26, 10:54

My first thought was 1N. Then I realized that we are content enough to get out in 2, thus we are only left with one problem bid... 2. Against that, if partner was about to bid 1NT over our 1 bid, then we have lost the ability to play in clubs by bidding 1NT ourselves.

However, change the hand to xxxx x xx KQxxxx and now we have problems over both 2 and 2. Then I would bid 1NT.
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#10 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-April-26, 11:25

Phil, on Apr 18 2010, 10:11 PM, said:

We'd all bid a Forcing 1N over 1 with: xxxx, void, xxx, KQ9xxx right?

What if the spades were better? Say, Kxxx. What about five little - (and 2?).

Thanks.

With the holding shown I would call a F1NT. With Kxxx I would call 1
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#11 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-April-26, 11:31

I bid 1, the only thing better would be 1 showing a forcing notrump.

Well maybe not the only thing (NF 2 response?) but the only thing I ever play.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#12 User is offline   dealmegold 

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Posted 2010-April-27, 02:33

Echognome, on Apr 26 2010, 11:54 AM, said:

My first thought was 1N. Then I realized that we are content enough to get out in 2, thus we are only left with one problem bid... 2. Against that, if partner was about to bid 1NT over our 1 bid, then we have lost the ability to play in clubs by bidding 1NT ourselves.

However, change the hand to xxxx x xx KQxxxx and now we have problems over both 2 and 2. Then I would bid 1NT.

What are these problems over 2 and 2 (he asks naively...)?

Over either of those rebids by opener, I'd let opener play 2. Maybe a forcing 1NT allows me to plump for 3 without that being FSF, but I can't necessarily see that being a better contract (I should probably have a better suit).

I'd still rather give opener the chance to play 1NT opposite those handy looking clubs.
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#13 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2010-April-27, 06:36

I'd try 1NT + 3.
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