[nige1]

nigel_k, on 2011-March-22, 13:18, said:

It is stronger than a 1NT opening and weaker than a 2NT opening, so 18-19 after upgrading.

JLOGIC, on 2011-March-27, 16:42, said:

Was going to post this word for word.

Good. That keeps it simple and manageable.

aguahombre, on 2011-March-22, 09:52, said:

1NT forcing is not a frill in 2/1, it is the component which allows 2/1 bids to be game forcing.

nige1, on 2011-March-22, 11:15, said:

it seems that many British partnerships (including some of mine) are misdeclaring their basic system

Phil, on 2011-March-27, 21:36, said:

17+ - 19-. I much prefer playing a semi forcing NT, which complicates this.

So, according to aquahombre, Phil doesn't play 2/1 either?

[barryallen]

nige1, on 2011-March-28, 05:59, said:

Good. That keeps it simple and manageable. So, according to aquahombre, Phil doesn't play 2/1 either?

I have always wondered about upgrading 5 card suits in NT, when dummy is probably short on entries and support in that suit?

[JLOGIC]

Dare I wonder how playing semi forcing NT instead of forcing NT complicates this lol. If partner raises your minor thinking that you usually have 4, you will have enough to bid 3N anyways so it doesn't matter. Semi forcing NT means your 2 of a minor bid is not a balanced min, it is either extras or distribution.

[paulg]

JLOGIC, on 2011-March-28, 07:34, said:

Dare I wonder how playing semi forcing NT instead of forcing NT complicates this lol. If partner raises your minor thinking that you usually have 4, you will have enough to bid 3N anyways so it doesn't matter. Semi forcing NT means your 2 of a minor bid is not a balanced min, it is either extras or distribution.

I'm not sure, in a fairly basic system, that we should move from a forcing 1NT to a semi-forcing 1NT and then wish to make opener's 2m rebid forcing. So I don't think that a semi-forcing 1NT makes a difference to opener's 2NT rebid.

[Phil]

I haven't been misquoted in awhile. Wonderful.

Quote

17+ - 19-. I much prefer playing a semi forcing NT, which complicates this.

My full paragraph was:

Quote

If I played with a partner who hated opening 1N with a 5 card major, then I'd fudge with 2m over 1N. However, I much prefer playing a semi forcing NT, which complicates this.

What this means is I loathe pulling a semi-forcing 1N response to 2m, in the hopes I can catch up with 2N later.

[JLOGIC]

??? Why is this different than a forcing NT, or a non forcing NT?

edit: Also, Phil, I think nige1 was just making fun of waterhombre saying that you don't play 2/1 if you don't play forcing NT rather than trying to misquote you. In the context of that point, I don't think you were misquoted by him.

[Phil]

Heh; maybe opening 1M with 15-17 isn't such a travesty. We might get out to a far superior partial if partner passes 2m (when opener is 5M332) with a 7 count and 5 card support.

[mtvesuvius]

Y'all can have fun with your rebid problems. Oh, and by the way, what do you use 1N-3♣ as, and when was the last time you used it?

[nigel_k]

mtvesuvius, on 2011-March-28, 17:28, said:

Y'all can have fun with your rebid problems. Oh, and by the way, what do you use 1N-3♣ as, and when was the last time you used it?

Some of us don't like bidding Stayman with balanced invite and no major. So, for example, 2♠ either balanced invite or minor signoff, 2NT clubs invit or better, 3♣ diamonds invit or better.

[aguahombre]

puppet enroute to 3nt...and very often, adam. And even more often than that, since if I don't, and bid 3NT directly, pard should worry about her major stoppers