[antonylee]

My partner and I have been playing Polish club as described by Jassem (WJ05) + a few gadgets for more than a year now. One thing that is not mentioned in the book is how he responds to 1♣ as a passed hand: e.g., what are 2m and 2N now? I assume 2m=9-11, 2N=10-11 is playable but how does that modify e.g. the 1N response or the 3m responses? Is there anything standard?

[rhm]

antonylee, on 2012-November-28, 14:26, said:

My partner and I have been playing Polish club as described by Jassem (WJ05) + a few gadgets for more than a year now. One thing that is not mentioned in the book is how he responds to 1♣ as a passed hand: e.g., what are 2m and 2N now? I assume 2m=9-11, 2N=10-11 is playable but how does that modify e.g. the 1N response or the 3m responses? Is there anything standard?

I do not know whether there is a standard, I can only tell you what I like to play.
One of the features in WJ05 I consider a bit weird is the range of the 1NT response to 1♣ showing 9-11. It is neither fish nor fowl.
If partner is strong you often wrongside notrump and if he is 12-14 but maximum, he may not be able to pass in comfort for fear of missing game.
I play an immediate 1NT response to 1♣ as a clear invitation opposite a weak notrump, something starting from a good ten to a bad 12 count.
Hands, which would bid 2NT over a weak notrump opening. This enables us to play 1NT, where others reach 2NT or 3NT and often go down.
Being balanced with no 4 card major and less up to a poor ten count we respond 1♦ and will only later bid 1NT over 1M.
I see no good reason to do anything else as a passed hand.
For example yesterday I held as dealer, all vulnerable

♠K8,♥A83,♦QJT83,♣732

I passed and responded 1NT to 1♣. Though partner had 13 HCP even 1NT would have gone down double dummy.
But passed opponents now decided to compete over 1NT and paid out 800 in 2♦ doubled.

If a passed hand responds in two of a minor over 1♣, it should show a reasonable suit in an unbalanced hand with no 4 card major and enough for game if partner has a strong variant. The response of three of a minor over 1♣ remains unchanged.

The 2NT response over 1♣ for a passed hand does not exist, because so far I have not come up with a good meaning. (suggestions welcome)
Both opponents have passed already. If you use it for a weak hand you are likely preempting your partner.

Rainer Herrmann

[Siegmund]

Depends a fair bit what hands you open. When I am playing a Polish variant, if I am a passed hand, I will never have 11 HCP, let alone a bad 12. (As an unpassed hand I have used 1NT as wide as 8-11, still expecting opener to pass 14s.)

I've never had an agreement about 2NT by a passed hand, I don't think.