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Where do you want to be? and how do you bid it?

#1 User is offline   manudude03 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 04:21



As the title suggests, what contract do you want to play in and how do you bid it?

edit: North is dealer.
Wayne Somerville
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#2 User is offline   CamHenry 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 05:24

Who bids first?

I think 6NT needs the club split, while 6 is pretty good especially played by N. It's harder by S on a spade lead, as you then need to guess whether to play for [s]K onside or the club break.

My auction may well be
1-2
2-3
3NT - end

At least that one's a guaranteed plus score...
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#3 User is offline   uhhlv 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 05:46

I think 6 spade is the best contract. It is better if it s played by north. But I think it s impossible to reach it.
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#4 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 06:43

4NT. 1-1-2-3-3-3NT-4NT-Pa

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#5 User is offline   TWO4BRIDGE 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 06:48

2C - 3C
3NT
Don Stenmark
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall

" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh

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#6 User is offline   manudude03 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 07:05

Sorry, North deals, I'll edit now.
Wayne Somerville
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#7 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 08:45

I think 3NT would be likely for me, as boring (and probably wrong) as that is:

1 = 15+ nat/bal or 18+ any
... - 1 = 4+ spades, GF (if bal or 3-suited then 4+ hearts)
1 = relay, usually 18+
... - 2 = 4 spades, 5+ clubs
2 = relay
... - 3 = 4216
3 = relay
... - 3 = min
3NT
(-: Zel :-)
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#8 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2013-June-19, 10:04

Looks to me as if N has a clear 1 opener: opening 2 is just asking for trouble on what is really a 3-suiter with marginal values and diamonds as the longest suit.

In 2/1 S has no option but to bid 1, even if 2 is not a gf if followed by 3. Missing a 4-4 spade fit just doesn't seem right.

N has an easy reverse, with, now, significant extras in light of the 1 response.

S can bid 3, natural and game forcing.

N now bids 3 to describe 12 of his cards...he is 3=4=5=1 or 3=4=6=0.

S hates this so he tries to slow it down via 3N. Partner's marked club shortness makes slam remote.

N could, I suppose, find a pass if he trusts partner to have no slam interest and good club stoppers, but I can't see myself doing that. I'd bid 4N, natural. Now it's anyone's guess, but my view (which may be influenced by knowing the hand) is that S should pass. He has the worst possible diamond holding, close to the worst possible spade holding, and he knows that the clubs probably won't run...heck, even if N has the stiff J, he likely has to guess whether to play for the drop of the 10 or hope that the spade J is an entry. I'd go really low as S and pass 4N.
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#9 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 00:19

View Postmikeh, on 2013-June-19, 10:04, said:

In 2/1 S has no option but to bid 1, even if 2 is not a gf if followed by 3. Missing a 4-4 spade fit just doesn't seem right.

Bidding spades before clubs on this hand seems like it could lead to a lot of problems. I would rather treat this as a game force and/or give up on a 4-4 spade fit. But it's possible to have methods after 1-2 where you can investigate a spade fit and still play 3 if partner is minimum.
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#10 User is offline   the_clown 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 04:30

I would like to be in 3N but I dont think I can avoid being in 6.
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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 04:55

I'd like to be in 6 by North, but I'll settle for 6 by South.

I'd normally play 3 by responder on the second round as FSF, so my responder would have to rebid 3NT. How about the agricultural:
1-1
2-3NT
4NT-6

Obviously we should play 5NT as a transfer to clubs, but unfortunately I've never discussed that with anyone.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 06:55

View Postgnasher, on 2013-June-20, 04:55, said:

I'd like to be in 6 by North, but I'll settle for 6 by South.

I'd normally play 3 by responder on the second round as FSF, so my responder would have to rebid 3NT. How about the agricultural:
1-1
2-3NT
4NT-6

Obviously we should play 5NT as a transfer to clubs, but unfortunately I've never discussed that with anyone.

I dont see the downside to 3c after 2h whats the worst that can happen? Here partner
patterns out with 3s and when you bid 3n now you are showing extra values unlike
the 3n which you bid earlier which may easily be with a fair 8 count. Your proposed
4n seems like a big stretch considering just how light p may be for their 3n bid. What
would they need to consider 6 (a balanced 11 count maybe)?
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#13 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 07:09

View Postmikeh, on 2013-June-19, 10:04, said:

S can bid 3, natural and game forcing.



+1. I think this is more common and useful than 4th suit. It only stymies us when we are specifically, 4324 with zero in clubs which seems super-unlikely.
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#14 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 07:14

View Postmikeh, on 2013-June-19, 10:04, said:

Looks to me as if N has a clear 1 opener: opening 2 is just asking for trouble on what is really a 3-suiter with marginal values and diamonds as the longest suit.

In 2/1 S has no option but to bid 1, even if 2 is not a gf if followed by 3. Missing a 4-4 spade fit just doesn't seem right.

N has an easy reverse, with, now, significant extras in light of the 1 response.

S can bid 3, natural and game forcing.

N now bids 3 to describe 12 of his cards...he is 3=4=5=1 or 3=4=6=0.

S hates this so he tries to slow it down via 3N. Partner's marked club shortness makes slam remote.

N could, I suppose, find a pass if he trusts partner to have no slam interest and good club stoppers, but I can't see myself doing that. I'd bid 4N, natural. Now it's anyone's guess, but my view (which may be influenced by knowing the hand) is that S should pass. He has the worst possible diamond holding, close to the worst possible spade holding, and he knows that the clubs probably won't run...heck, even if N has the stiff J, he likely has to guess whether to play for the drop of the 10 or hope that the spade J is an entry. I'd go really low as S and pass 4N.


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#15 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-June-20, 09:02

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-June-20, 07:09, said:

+1. I think this is more common and useful than 4th suit. It only stymies us when we are specifically, 4324 with zero in clubs which seems super-unlikely.

I agree that this is a sequence where we might be able to manage without FSF, but it's still useful to be able to say that you have no clear direction. Playing FSF, a 3 bid shows actual suitability for diamonds, and a 2 bid followed by a game-forcing action shows a decent spade suit.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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