[m1cha]

Last night I took part in a robot tournament (as a human player). In one board I ended up playing 4♥ in a 4-2 fit againts a 6-1 trumps break going down 4 (IMPs, vulnerable, undoubled) . This turned out to get a decent result because most other players also played 4♥ in a 4-2 fit against a 6-1 trumps break, and two of them went down 5. How could this happen?

Here's the board:

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3♦ from S shows 17 - 20 total points and twice rebiddable ♦s iirc. 3♥ from N was labeled 5+ ♥s, 8+ total points and is perhaps an attempt to keep the road to 3NT open. 4♥ from S should bring 3 cards in ♥. Bud 3♥ is obviously forcing and may be very strong, something must be done and the players decided to raise to 4♥ with doubleton support to play in a 5-2 or 6-2 fit since there's no other full game in view. This is what happened, now: How should this be bid correctly?

I'd argue that 3♦ from S is the best available description of the hand, but the 3♥ bid from N looks plain crazy to me. What should N do instead? This situation has a number of side-questions:
- May 3♦ from S be passed?
- Should 3♠ from N be natural or artificial?
- Should 4♦ from N be invitational or Minorwood?
- And was S at fault by raising to 4♥?

By the way, the top score in this board went to a player who passed in the first round (as S with a 7-card suit and 15 HCP, oh yes!). W opened 2♥, Weak2, N and E passed, and S now bid 3♦ to be played and made. No comment on this. However, this brings up another interesing aspect because there is another, more sensible way of getting there. If S opens 1NT(!), N will pass but the opponents will do something; S then rebids 3♦ probably to be played. Opening 1NT with a 7-card minor in 7222 is perfectly legal and not even alertable, I believe, but it is not common. Has anyone tried this on a regular basis, and what is your experience?

[apollo1201]

I would pass as N in MP but trying to reach 3NT in IMP with useful honors and vuln would look tempting (provided the 3D is indeed as strong as "alerted"). I would consider 1NT as S as an option but I would just freak out and open 1D. I opened once a 7222 of 18 or 19 with 2NT and it turned good, but I'm not sure it is systematizable. Anyway it is quite rare...

[gszes]

3s for me

I am willing to try to get us to 3n and pass will not get us there. It is true that I am investing an extra level but with kxx dia and K of spades my hand is much better than it has to be for my 1h bid and even 5d is not out of the picture if p is short in clubs. 3d is indeed passable and there are quite a few hands I would pass with but the dia honor and spade control give me good reason to think game is possible. Now for even better news - what about 4s? It is indeed possible partner began with 4 spades and has been unable to show them and while our 3s bid does not promise 4 of them we can always retreat from 4s to 5d on those hands here we would sit happily ever after.

[m1cha]

gszes, on 2015-August-31, 16:35, said:

Now for even better news - what about 4s? It is indeed possible partner began with 4 spades and has been unable to show them and while our 3s bid does not promise 4 of them we can always retreat from 4s to 5d on those hands here we would sit happily ever after.

I'm afraid I would not have understood your 4♠ bid though I like it. So how can you cue bid with a slam-going hand? 3♠ also, and if partner bids 3NT and you continue beyond, you were showing the ace (or king) of ♠?

@apollo1201: Yes, I also prefer to play the 3♦ rebid weaker, but that's what the label said.