Is Law 17D Flawed? "What's the point?"
#21
Posted 2012-May-28, 08:22
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#22
Posted 2012-May-28, 09:40
blackshoe, on 2012-May-28, 08:22, said:
Law 87 A Definition said:
This definition does not exclude unplayed board(s) from being considered fouled, and Law 87B (Scoring) applies whenever a board exists or has existed in more than one form.
I have on several occations with Mitchell or Howell movements been able to discover and correct a fouled board immediately after it was played first time. I still had to apply Law 87 and score the board in two separate groups, one group of course with just one result.
So also here. The fact that the foul was discovered before play began is irrelevant so long as at least one call had been made in the auction. (In a not too serious event I might consider "stretching" Law 13 allowing the board to be played.)
#23
Posted 2012-May-28, 10:14
It is not the case that these contestants "did not play the board..." because they haven't finished playing it. I say again, I see no reason not to apply Law 17D in this case.
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#24
Posted 2012-May-28, 16:56
blackshoe, on 2012-May-28, 10:14, said:
It is not the case that these contestants "did not play the board..." because they haven't finished playing it. I say again, I see no reason not to apply Law 17D in this case.
There is a difference between:
did not play the board in identical form for such reason
and:
played the board in different forms for such reason
Law 87 uses the first construction.
#25
Posted 2012-May-28, 17:16
#26
Posted 2012-May-28, 19:42
As for tv, screw it. You aren't missing anything. -- Ken Berg
I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
#27
Posted 2012-May-29, 02:01
Law 17D1 said:
But the point is that in the session of this thread that we are discussing here (see post #19) the player has not picked the cards from the wrong board, some other player has placed cards from a wrong board into this board.
That makes Law 17 irrelevant because we have no offending player.
#28
Posted 2012-May-29, 02:13
Vampyr, on 2012-May-28, 05:58, said:
Easy? I don't think so. When was the last time you saw a player with both their hands from two different boards out at the same time?
London UK
#29
Posted 2012-May-29, 02:43
pran, on 2012-May-28, 07:22, said:
I do not think you have the "and the contestants who should have had a score comparison did not play the board in identical form for such reason" clause for applying 87 at the point where 17D would apply.
#30
Posted 2012-May-29, 03:28
gordontd, on 2012-May-29, 02:13, said:
Vampyr, on 2012-May-28, 05:58, said:
Easy? I don't think so. When was the last time you saw a player with both their hands from two different boards out at the same time?
Oh - I (as TD) have had that situation more than once! (The players were of course not very happy with my reaction.)