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Truth

#21 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 04:47

View PostEricK, on 2013-December-03, 00:30, said:

Playing low quickly when you have the ace but not the queen when declarer leads towards the KJ in dummy (thus suggesting you don't have anything to think about) would also seem to be cheating - but has anybody ever got an adjustment in that scenario? I imagine it's more likely the defender would get congratulated for not giving the game away with a tell-tale pause.


If the play is quicker than normal, then I think that there should be an adjustment, though I don't know whether anyone has ever got one.

Obviously there is no difference between playing more slowly than your normal tempo to suggest indicate that you have the ace, and playing more quickly to suggest that you don't have it. Both are illegal, whether or not the unethical player is able to get away with it.
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#22 User is offline   broze 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 07:51

View Postwank, on 2013-November-30, 10:52, said:

exactly, the point was that you're not deceiving anyone

<snip>

you're showing the ace and you have the ace


Firstly, I do understand the point of the thread. The act OP describes is clearly unethical - so is it covered in the laws?...

"Is it legal to hesitate to let [declarer] know you have the ace?"

You have couched the question in this way but that is not really what you are doing. Actually you are hesitating to make declarer think you have Ax, which is clearly an intention to deceive. If your hesitation has anything to do with hoping declarer puts up the King then you are actually trying to suggest Ax. As Andy has said this act is illegal anyway under 73D1, but I think it is illegal prima facie anyway.


View Postbarmar, on 2013-December-02, 19:31, said:

Except that "be particularly careful" is a very subjective requirement. You can't really say that this is a law like the ones about bids/plays out of turn.


So what? It is not a law like the others, no. But it is important to remember we are dealing with a Law book, not a rulebook. It is perfectly common for "laws" to contain subjective elements to be left to the disgression of the authority (in bridge, the director). This law (unlike so many others) is a good one imo, as it is broad and perfectly unambiguous. No one could claim that by hesitating here you are being at all "careful" not to achieve an advantage from the BIT.
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#23 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 09:34

View Postbroze, on 2013-December-03, 07:51, said:

As Andy has said this act is illegal anyway under 73D1, but I think it is illegal prima facie anyway.

No. If that concept were valid, you'd get rulings along the lines of "I can't find a specific rule against it, but I'm going to rule it's illegal anyway". Not only no, but Hell no. You must be able to tie your rulings to specific laws or regulations.

View Postbroze, on 2013-December-03, 07:51, said:

So what? It is not a law like the others, no. But it is important to remember we are dealing with a Law book, not a rulebook. It is perfectly common for "laws" to contain subjective elements to be left to the disgression of the authority (in bridge, the director). This law (unlike so many others) is a good one imo, as it is broad and perfectly unambiguous. No one could claim that by hesitating here you are being at all "careful" not to achieve an advantage from the BIT.

"This law"? Which one are you talking about? 73D1? I would have used 73D2, myself.

Laws aren't any different from rules, where a game is concerned, notwithstanding your capitalization.
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#24 User is offline   broze 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 10:03

View Postblackshoe, on 2013-December-03, 09:34, said:

No. If that concept were valid, you'd get rulings along the lines of "I can't find a specific rule against it, but I'm going to rule it's illegal anyway". Not only no, but Hell no. You must be able to tie your rulings to specific laws or regulations.


That's not in the slightest what I was trying to suggest. I wasn't aware I was introducing a "concept" - I don't even understand why you've quoted that sentence of mine and then made that reply. Not only am I not saying that "I can't find a specific rule against it", I'm saying it is illegal under two laws in my opinion (73D2, which the OP thinks is not the case, and 73D1). What on earth is wrong about that?

I'm certainly not trying to suggest that something can be illegal without contravening any laws. :blink:

Quote

"This law"? Which one are you talking about? 73D1? I would have used 73D2, myself.


73D1, the law which, barmar and Andy were discussing. I thought that was clear. If you would have used 73D2, then you would have to explain to the OP why you think that by "showing" the ace by his hesitation, he is misleading the opponent. (See my last post why I think this is the case)

Quote

Laws aren't any different from rules, where a game is concerned, notwithstanding your capitalization.


The semantic point about 'rule' vs 'law' notwithstanding, what is your point? Are you saying that 73D1 is not a good law? I was stating that I think it is a very good law despite the fact that it is, as barmar said, very subjective. I can't work out whether you disagree or not. From your post it seems like you haven't read the whole thread.
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#25 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 16:19

View Postbroze, on 2013-December-03, 10:03, said:

That's not in the slightest what I was trying to suggest. I wasn't aware I was introducing a "concept" - I don't even understand why you've quoted that sentence of mine and then made that reply. Not only am I not saying that "I can't find a specific rule against it", I'm saying it is illegal under two laws in my opinion (73D2, which the OP thinks is not the case, and 73D1). What on earth is wrong about that?

I'm certainly not trying to suggest that something can be illegal without contravening any laws. :blink:

One meaning of prima facie is "accepted as correct until proven otherwise". In effect, then, you said that a TD should rule against someone who did this unless he (or someone) can prove there's no law against it. So it seemed to me you were trying to suggest something can be illegal without contravening any laws.

View Postbroze, on 2013-December-03, 10:03, said:

73D1, the law which, barmar and Andy were discussing. I thought that was clear. If you would have used 73D2, then you would have to explain to the OP why you think that by "showing" the ace by his hesitation, he is misleading the opponent. (See my last post why I think this is the case)

It wasn't clear to me at the time. B-)

Generally, in making rulings, I try to explain to the players involved why I'm ruling as I do. This in spite of the fact that most TDs (in the ACBL anyway) don't do that, and many players think it's a waste of time. IAC, I would have no problem explaining why I think 73D2 has been breached in this case.

View Postbroze, on 2013-December-03, 10:03, said:

The semantic point about 'rule' vs 'law' notwithstanding, what is your point? Are you saying that 73D1 is not a good law? I was stating that I think it is a very good law despite the fact that it is, as barmar said, very subjective. I can't work out whether you disagree or not. From your post it seems like you haven't read the whole thread.

You seemed to want to grant "Law" some higher status that "rule", or at least you differentiated between "Law book" and "rule book". All I'm saying is that I don't think there's any difference where a game is concerned (well, "rule" can include "regulation" which in bridge is a different thing from a "law", although having the same force). As a matter of fact, I think it's kind of pretentious for the powers that be in our game to call them "laws" rather than "rules". :ph34r:

I do not think 73D1 is a bad law. Nor is 73D2. If this situation occurred where I was directing, I'd want to investigate a bit. I'm inclined to rule a violation of 73D2, but that depends on intent, and if the transgressor insists (and I believe him) that he was not attempting to deceive, but rather to clarify, and does not accept my view that he didn't think about the impact of what he was doing deeply enough, I may have to find another law. There's also the question of what to do if declarer says "I was not deceived; I simply ignored his tempo." Of course, the law doesn't say that an attempt to deceive must be successful. :P

I read every post in these forums, including those from the very few players I've ignored because of their posts in other areas. I may lose track of a long thread, though, in which case I'll usually, but I admit not always, go back and skim it, particularly if something doesn't make sense. In this case though I didn't lose track of anything. I may not have explained myself very well. If so, I apologize, and I hope this post clears things up.
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#26 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 16:22

View Postblackshoe, on 2013-December-03, 16:19, said:

You seemed to want to grant "Law" some higher status that "rule", or at least you differentiated between "Law book" and "rule book". All I'm saying is that I don't think there's any difference where a game is concerned


I am sure that the majority of bridge players in the world have never heard of a Law Book, but they know about sufficient bids and legal plays etc -- in short, the rules of the game.
I know not with what weapons World War III will be fought, but World War IV will be fought with sticks and stones -- Albert Einstein
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#27 User is offline   jallerton 

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Posted 2013-December-03, 17:01

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-December-02, 18:04, said:

Someone has hacked into Wank's account imo.


Yes, Cyberyeti has already been 'outed' by Vampyr.
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#28 User is offline   broze 

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Posted 2013-December-08, 17:26

View Postblackshoe, on 2013-December-03, 16:19, said:

One meaning of prima facie is "accepted as correct until proven otherwise". In effect, then, you said that a TD should rule against someone who did this unless he (or someone) can prove there's no law against it. So it seemed to me you were trying to suggest something can be illegal without contravening any laws.


By "prima facie" I meant 'on the face of it' - i.e. without having to resort to any other laws than the obvious one. It appears I also explained myself poorly. Apologies.
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#29 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2013-December-08, 23:30

View Postbroze, on 2013-December-08, 17:26, said:

By "prima facie" I meant 'on the face of it' - i.e. without having to resort to any other laws than the obvious one. It appears I also explained myself poorly. Apologies.

No worries. B-)
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