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Who says 1 diamond overcall has no effect on opponents. ATB

#1 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 16:19



Team game, 1 doubled was down 2 for +300 to EW, while other table played 6 and claimed after finesse failed. However at the table where slam was reached, EW bid without a overcall.

- How would u bid it ?

- If u believe 1 overcall matters, do u think it is the North player's fault who did not overcall with KQx Kx JTxxxx xx in other room ?

-What would u bid by West, if u disagree with his pass ?
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#2 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 16:20

East made a negative double with 4-4 in the majors, showing 4-4 in the majors. How could one blame him? West passed a takeout X at the 1 level with 4 trumps... I mean...lol. If west wants to gamble good for him but it's on him when it doesn't work, east was just bidding his hand.

Personally I think wests pass is hopeless and he got what he deserved, and I'd be embarrassed to blame my partner for this result if I was west.
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#3 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 16:29

Pass is terrible and got what it deserved.

All the blame to West, East had his (only) bid.
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#4 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 16:32

View PostJLOGIC, on 2011-February-21, 16:20, said:

East made a negative double with 4-4 in the majors, showing 4-4 in the majors. How could one blame him? West passed a takeout X at the 1 level with 4 trumps... I mean...lol. If west wants to gamble good for him but it's on him when it doesn't work, east was just bidding his hand.

Personally I think wests pass is hopeless and he got what he deserved, and I'd be embarrassed to blame my partner for this result if I was west.


I edited the original questions after your reply, u are right about E having no fault with his bidding. But upto some experts i asked, that doesnt neccesarilly makes W in fault. Thats why i asked here. :)
"Genius has its own limitations, however stupidity has no such boundaries!"
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"

"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."





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#5 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 16:59

Passing 1D X could work out just fine. Your hand is strong enough that I would expect to be able to make a game very often. I would not be that surprised to learn I had a slam in clubs. I would also not expect to beat them more than 500 very often, LHO overcalled on a weak suit and presumably not that many HCP, I wouldn't be surprised if he had 6 diamonds. Sure AKQx is nice, but it's only 3 trump tricks at the end of the day, and if they have 6 diamonds they probably also have 3 trump tricks to begin with. I would be very worried about disaster scenarios like partner having JTxx xxxx x KJxx or something where we are cold for 3N, and they make 1D.

Yes it's possible a game goes down our way but not that likely, and it's also possible we can get them for 800 and have no slam. Those are our big win scenarios, and I view them as much less likely than getting an inadequate penalty vs our game, or us being cold for slam, or both.

I also don't really want LHO to run to 1S. This will help them lead/defend if we get to 3N later.

Basically I just view passing as a big gamble. Big gambles are not necessarily wrong in bridge, but I don't feel like this is a good spot. It's just so unilateral at a really early point in the auction, and I'm not convinced there's any edge in it at all.

That said, of course the passer is unlucky to catch a layout where you get 300 and are cold for slam, just as the passer would be lucky to catch partner with some hand where we got 800.
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#6 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 17:07

Another point that is important to me at least is that when you DO have a big number it is usually when LHO has only 5 diamonds. I would expect him to always run with JTxxx, and I would expect him to likely have a good 4 card major (probably spades) since he has no HCP in diamonds and didn't make a takeout double. Yeah he could be 3253 or something (and even then when he redoubles it will be right). Anyways, my point is a lot of the time that pass is "right" LHO can profitably run. I would not sit for a double of 1S and would just bid 3N, in which case my upside has become even smaller on the pass.
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#7 User is offline   tolvyrj 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 17:24

This could have been a great result in pairs where prd usually comes in with 13 cards in his hand...teams its bit greedy. Im going to make Nt in some level... lets say at least 2 level, i would have bid 2 and hope that prd wont pass it :lol: . then in his probable 2 of major i bid 3, which got to be forcing...wishful thinking, well a Reese said it...if prd passes now i have something to hold against him B-) .
Now all prd has to do is to understand a) im not intrested in majors and b) i have something else than minimum hand and yes....
In pairs my regular prd would have bid 3 asking stopper in Nt, but since it teams he probaply bids 4...then follows 4by me and 4by prd, cues and now depending am i on the mood i bid RKCB or 6.
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#8 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 18:03

View Posttolvyrj, on 2011-February-21, 17:24, said:

i would have bid 2 and hope that prd wont pass it :lol: ......
Now all prd has to do is to understand a) im not intrested in majors and b) i have something else than minimum hand and yes....

He probably bids 4...then follows (onward to 6.)


I edited it to include the parts which make sense to me. Pard's neg double already showed his 4-4 major suit distribution, but not his strength or his minor(s) pattern.

So, 2D seems perfect as a rebid for opener. Responder then jumps in clubs to show extra strength and the nice fit. After that, 6C seems easy.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#9 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 18:15

Anyone to blame North in other room for not overcalling with KQx Kx JTxxxx xx and not putting the West at his tabel on test ?
"Genius has its own limitations, however stupidity has no such boundaries!"
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"

"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."





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#10 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 18:17

I would overcall that but it's not some people's style. Regardless, "putting west to the test" here is silly. West's pass is too one-sided and will backfire very often.
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#11 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 18:24

View Postmtvesuvius, on 2011-February-21, 18:17, said:

I would overcall that but it's not some people's style. Regardless, "putting west to the test" here is silly. West's pass is too one-sided and will backfire very often.


What would you bid as west if pass is out of question for you ? I insist on asking this because, even when not passed, the continuation may not get us to find the slam after that overcall, i just wanna know how would a pair handle this deal after 1 overcall and find their way to slam ? (of course i have an opinion how to bid, but i am not sure if i am being affected from the fact that i see both hands.)
"Genius has its own limitations, however stupidity has no such boundaries!"
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"

"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."





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#12 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 18:37

This is yet another hand where I see somebody get a poor result after opening a short club (although it's not really the cause this time), having failed to find a club fit.

We bid 1(4+ cards)-(1)-2(inverted not denying 4M) and there is no problem.

If partner was 4423/4432, the big hand might have done the right thing, although I think I'd bid 3N over the X.
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#13 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 19:07

View PostMrAce, on 2011-February-21, 18:24, said:

What would you bid as west if pass is out of question for you ?

2NT.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#14 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 19:13

View PostMrAce, on 2011-February-21, 18:24, said:

What would you bid as west if pass is out of question for you ? I insist on asking this because, even when not passed, the continuation may not get us to find the slam after that overcall, i just wanna know how would a pair handle this deal after 1 overcall and find their way to slam ? (of course i have an opinion how to bid, but i am not sure if i am being affected from the fact that i see both hands.)

I think probably 2, which should be extras without any clear direction.

East will bid 3, West will now get a bit excited, probably bidding 3, East now can bid 3, West 4 etc...
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#15 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 20:19

I prefer 2D Q-bid with East hand.
'Have majors AND C-fit.'
Now Neg-X always denies C-fit.
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#16 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-February-21, 21:00

View Postmtvesuvius, on 2011-February-21, 19:13, said:

I think probably 2, which should be extras without any clear direction.

East will bid 3, West will now get a bit excited, probably bidding 3, East now can bid 3, West 4 etc...


Since your auction is exactly as if the overcall had not occurred, did 3 show the extra strength that the responder had? (Where 2M would have been a weak Leben-type bid in context of the known 4-4 in the majors?).

If so, it seems great. If not, I think I would have to bid 4 instead of 3 with the East hand/2D.
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#17 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2011-February-22, 04:58

I think there are a couple of inferences available to West:

- It is apparent to overcaller that he was bidding without any tops in his suit so is likely to have extra length for his overcall.
- opponents are not vulnerable and probably have a fit anyway
- West is strong enough to insist on game opposite a negative double, which means a successful double will require you to take at least 9 tricks. You have 5. Are you confident to find another 4 tricks?
- Since there are at least 10 s between you and overcaller with partner being likely short in and opponents have a probable fit, are you surprised that your side has a fit in ?

Are you still convinced passing the negative double is a serious option?

For the record I believe 2 (not an immediate 2NT) is fairly obvious. This is a good hand for a suit contract. If partner bids or , I am interested.

Rainer Herrmann
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#18 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2011-February-22, 05:54

I can only echo other posters comments about the pass.

I would definitely overcall 1 (and I'd rather bid 2 than pass).

After partners negative double, I'd bid 2. And I'm not letting partner off the hook below 3NT. 2NT is a big misunderstanding.
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#19 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2011-February-22, 07:45

1c 1d x p
2d p 3c p
3d p 5c p
6c
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#20 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2011-February-22, 12:50

Poor East. He picks up KJ10x QJxx x xxxx, and things start well for him: he gets to make a negative double of 1, showing most of his shape in one go. Then partner bids a game-forcing 2, which is nice, especially as responder has another easy call with 3. Now opener bids 3, presumably asking for a diamond stop. East has a fair hand for the bidding so far - four-card support and a singleton diamond, opposite what appears to be weak length. Still, he knows his partner is a bit of an overbidder, so instead of 4, which his hand is worth, he jumps to 5 to try to slow things down a bit. Then partner self-raises to 6 anyway. That drifts a couple off after a spade to the ace and a heart return, but maybe it doesn't matter - 5 might have gone down on the same defence. Then somebody wonders whether 3NT might have made.

In another world, East has AKxx Qxxx x xxxx, and sees the same pleasant start to the auction, but after 3 opener bids 3, which presumably sets hearts as trumps. East's hand has plusses and minuses, but it seems reasonable to bid 3. Over that, opener bids a serious 4. The weak clubs are a slight worry, but slam is good opposite x AKxx xxx AKQxx, and we're still below game, so East cue-bids 4. Now opener bids Keycard and follows with 6. Luckily East knows that that's a place to play not a grand-slam try, so he passes. Sadly, the trumps don't come in for no loser, and 6 goes down again. Then somebody wonders whether 3NT might have made.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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