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Why not 2 Clubs? And how do you describe it...

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2013-June-22, 21:28

All red, ximps, dealer passes and you hold:


AQT9xxx
AJ
KQTx

If you open 1
Spoiler

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2013-June-22, 22:27

I would open 2 not 1. Having opened 1, a non forcing 3 rebid is not enough when partner responds 1. 4 might be ok if it shows a hand close to a 2 opening, but most play it as quite a lot weaker than this. I would rebid 3 followed by 4 on the third round.
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#3 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2013-June-22, 23:42

I would open 1, but have no strong objection to 2. I'd prefer the heart J rather than the 10 for the stronger call. And I'd prefer spades as my long suit, rather than hearts, since when one plays 2 immediate negative, as I and many others do, the 2 opening based on hearts is a game force, while based on spades, partner can let you out at the 3 level with a true bust.

It's one thing to say that this isn't a 2 opener: it is quite something else, and imo something silly, to argue that it is a 3 rebid! 3 is crystal clear after the 1 opening bid.
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#4 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2013-June-23, 01:56

This hand is the sort of reason I play a GF unbal 2N rebid over 1x-1y.

Partner has a semi forced 3 bid over this which he can break with 7 or a 5-5.

I can then rebid 3N showing 6+, 4+ and a huge hand.
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#5 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-June-23, 17:32

1-1-4
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#6 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2013-June-23, 18:05

To me bidding 3 or 4 over 1 is nuts.

Imo 3 is auto. All you need is to find pd with Jxxx or Jxxxx and nothing else to play a percentage slam. If you find your pd with Axxx(x) grandslam is very likely. And it is not even hard to investigate, all you need is a simple raise by pd when you bid 3

How would one ignore all these and bid a nf 3 or 4 escapes me. It is not even MP ffs!
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#7 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2013-June-23, 18:32

Since making game requires little more than the club J and a singleton
heart I prefer to open this with 2c and since I hate the 2h double neg I have
no problems with my p bidding 2d waiting and i can safely bid 2h. Whatever
happens from there I have no clue but I am a whole slew happier knowing
I won't be stuck in 1h when 4 or even 6 is ice cold.

If I did open 1h 3c is the only way to go over 1s not some number of hearts.
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#8 User is offline   bigbenvic 

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Posted 2013-June-23, 22:10

I'd open 1 and rebid 2 as the jump in clubs shows a raise with a stiff (or void) club.
2 rebid is unpassable so I have no fear of that.

I have no fear of playing it in 1 as there are 24 points and 13 spades in the 3 other hands, someone will chime in with a bid.
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#9 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2013-June-24, 00:32

Close call between 2 or 1 . No objections either way. If you open 1 , then I think 3 has got to be your rebid.

Once partner responds, I think you want to be in game.

Bidding it 1 - 1 - 4 depends on your take on what the 4 rebid means. Some people like to play it as a strong opener with a solid suit. The problem with it as a rebid is that it takes up so much space and partner has no idea exactly what your hand is. It may make it more difficult to find slam when it's there. The rebid came up in a discussion group and it was interesting to find out that there was some pretty wide and differing views of exactly what it showed.

The advantage of opening 2 , I think, is that partner has an idea of how many losers you have and you can bid out your hand pattern.
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#10 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2013-June-24, 04:48

I have 16 HCPS and no spades, 1 will never been passed out... I try 1 3 4 or something like that...
Kind Regards

Roland


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